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Post by markgraham on Feb 10, 2018 1:26:57 GMT -6
Hello, There is the (double) problem with this, the Masculine Genitive Article for the Feminine Genitive Noun used as a Participle. (περὶ τοῦ) Ἁγιωσύνης ἐξ ἀναστάσεως νεκρῶν I am but too aware of both aspects. Is it possible despite Grammar, to regard and use a Feminine as if it were a Masculine? Is it possible despite Linguistics, to regard and use a Noun like it is a Participle? How about viewing (περὶ τοῦ) Ἁγιωσύνης ἐξ ἀναστάσεως νεκρῶν for a Vocative? Could accredited Greek scholars answer by providing INCIDENCES of such irregular, seemingly faulty usage? Please Help. Thanks ! I didn't find the right solution from the internet. References: www.gracecentered.com/christian_forums/theology/could-accredited-greek-scholars-answer/3D Animation pricing
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